2017年IOAA理论第11题-本星系群的质量
英文原题
(T11) Mass of the Local Group [50 marks]
The dynamics of M31 (Andromeda) and the Milky Way (MW) can be used to estimate the total mass of the Local Group (LG). The basic idea is that galaxies currently in a binary system were at approximately the same point in space shortly after the Big Bang. To a reasonable approximation, the mass of the local group is dominated by the masses of the MW and M31. Via Doppler shifts of the spectral lines, it was found that M31 is moving towards the MW with a speed of 118 km·s−1. This may be surprising, given that most galaxies are moving away from each other with the general Hubble flow. The fact that M31 is moving towards the MW is presumably because their mutual gravitational attraction has eventually reversed their initial velocities. In principle, if the pair of galaxies is well-represented by isolated point masses, their total mass may be determined by measuring their separation, relative velocity and the time since the universe began. Kahn and Woltjer (1959) used this argument to estimate the mass in the LG.
In this problem we will follow this argument through our calculation as follows.
a) Consider an isolated system with negligible angular momentum of two gravitating point masses $$m_1$$ and $$m_2$$ (as observed by an inertial observer at the centre of mass).
Write down the expression of the total mechanical energy ($$E$$) of this system in mathematical form connecting $$m_1$$ , $$m_2$$ , $$r_1$$ , $$r_2$$ , $$v_1$$, $$v_2$$ , and the universal gravitational constant $$G$$, where $$v_1$$ and $$v_2$$ are the radial velocities of $$m_1$$ and $$m_2$$ , respectively.[5]
b) Re-write the equation in a) in terms of $$r$$, $$v$$, $$\mu$$, $$M$$, and $$G$$, where $$r\equiv r_1 +r_2$$ is the separation distance between $$m_1$$ and $$m_2$$ , $$v$$ is the changing rate of the separation distance,$$\mu \equiv \dfrac{m_1 m_2}{m_1 + m_2}$$ is the reduced mass of the system, and $$M \equiv m_1+m_2$$ is the total mass of the system. [10]
c) Show that the equation in b) yields \[ v^2 = (2GM)(\frac{1}{r}-\frac{1}{r_0}) \text{, where }r_0 \text{ is a new constant.}\]
Find $$r_0$$ in terms of $$\mu$$ , $$M$$ , $$G$$ and $$E$$. [5]
d) The solution of the equation in b) is given below in parametric form, under the initial condition $$r=0 \text{ at } t=0$$ : \[r(\theta)=\frac{r_0}{2}(1-\cos\theta)\] \[t(\theta)=(\frac{r_0^3}{8GM})^{1/2}(\theta-\sin\theta)\] where $$\theta$$ is in radians.
From the above parametric equations, show that an expression for $$\dfrac{vt}{r}$$ is
\[\frac{vt}{r}=\frac{(\sin\theta)(\theta-\sin\theta)}{(1-\cos\theta)^2}\] [1]
e) Now we consider $$m_1$$ and $$m_2$$ as the MW and M31, respectively, such that the current values of $$v$$ and $$r$$ are $$v=–118\text{km s}^{-1}$$ and $$r=710 \text{kpc}$$,and $$t$$ may be taken to be the age of the Universe (13700 million years ). Find $$\theta$$ using numerical iteration. [10]
f) Use the value of $$\theta$$ from e) to calculate the maximum distance between M31 and the MW,$$r$$ , and hence also obtain the value of $$M$$ in solar masses. [10]
中文题目
(T11)本星系群的质量(50 分)
M31(仙女座星系)和银河系(MW)的动力学可以用来估算本星系群(LG)的总质量。其基本思想是:目前处于双星系系统中的两个星系,在大爆炸后不久大致位于空间中的同一点。作为一个相当合理的近似,可以认为本星系群的质量主要由银河系和 M31 的质量构成。通过测量谱线的多普勒频移,人们发现 M31 正以 $$118\,\mathrm{km\,s^{-1}}$$ 的速度接近银河系。考虑到大多数星系都随整体哈勃流彼此远离,这一现象可能令人惊讶。M31 正在接近银河系,可能是因为二者之间的相互引力最终逆转了它们最初的运动方向。原则上,如果这一对星系可以很好地近似为两个孤立的质点,那么通过测量它们之间的距离、相对速度以及宇宙诞生以来经过的时间,便可以确定它们的总质量。Kahn 和 Woltjer(1959)曾利用这一论证估算本星系群的质量。
在本题中,我们将按照这一思路完成如下计算。
(a)
考虑一个由两个相互吸引的质点 $$m_1$$ 和 $$m_2$$ 构成的孤立系统,其角动量可以忽略(由位于质心处的惯性观测者观测)。
写出该系统总机械能 $$E$$ 的数学表达式,使其包含 $$m_1$$、$$m_2$$、$$r_1$$、$$r_2$$、$$v_1$$、$$v_2$$ 和万有引力常数 $$G$$,其中 $$v_1$$ 和 $$v_2$$ 分别为 $$m_1$$ 和 $$m_2$$ 的径向速度。(5 分)
(b)
用 $$r$$、$$v$$、$$\mu$$、$$M$$ 和 $$G$$ 重写 (a) 中的方程,其中 $$r\equiv r_1+r_2$$ 是 $$m_1$$ 与 $$m_2$$ 之间的距离,$$v$$ 是该距离的变化率,$$\mu\equiv\dfrac{m_1m_2}{m_1+m_2}$$ 是该系统的约化质量,$$M\equiv m_1+m_2$$ 是该系统的总质量。(10 分)
(c)
证明 (b) 中的方程可以化为
$$v^2=(2GM)\left(\dfrac{1}{r}-\dfrac{1}{r_0}\right)$$
其中 $$r_0$$ 是一个新的常数。用 $$\mu$$、$$M$$、$$G$$ 和 $$E$$ 表示 $$r_0$$。(5 分)
(d)
在初始条件 $$t=0$$ 时 $$r=0$$ 下,(b) 中方程的解可以写成如下参数形式:
$$r(\theta)=\dfrac{r_0}{2}(1-\cos\theta)$$
$$t(\theta)=\left(\dfrac{r_0^3}{8GM}\right)^{1/2}(\theta-\sin\theta)$$
其中 $$\theta$$ 以弧度为单位。
利用上述参数方程,证明 $$\dfrac{vt}{r}$$ 的表达式为
$$\dfrac{vt}{r}=\dfrac{(\sin\theta)(\theta-\sin\theta)}{(1-\cos\theta)^2}$$
(1 分)
(e)
现在令 $$m_1$$ 和 $$m_2$$ 分别代表银河系和 M31。它们目前的 $$v$$ 和 $$r$$ 分别为 $$v=-118\,\mathrm{km\,s^{-1}}$$ 和 $$r=710\,\mathrm{kpc}$$,并可将 $$t$$ 取为宇宙的年龄(137 亿年)。通过数值迭代求出 $$\theta$$。(10 分)
(f)
利用 (e) 中求得的 $$\theta$$,计算 M31 与银河系之间的最大距离 $$r$$,并进而求出以太阳质量为单位的 $$M$$。(10 分)
题目解答
(a) \[ E = E_k + E_p = \dfrac{1}{2}m_1 v_1^2 + \dfrac{1}{2}m_2 v_2^2 - \dfrac{G m_1 m_2}{r_1 + r_2} \] (b)
首先解决势能部分: \[ E = \dfrac{1}{2}m_1 v_1^2 + \dfrac{1}{2}m_2 v_2^2 - \dfrac{G \mu M}{r} \] 另一方面,对于动能部分,因为动量守恒$$m_1 v_1 = m_2 v_2$$,且$$v_1 + v_2 = v$$,我们有: \[ v_2 = \dfrac{m_1 v_1}{m_2},\quad v_1 = \dfrac{m_2}{m_1 + m_2} v = \dfrac{m_2}{M} v \] 代入总能量的表达式得: \[ \begin{align*} E &= \dfrac{1}{2}m_1 v_1^2 + \dfrac{1}{2}m_2 \left(\dfrac{m_1 v_1}{m_2}\right)^2 - \dfrac{G \mu M}{r} \\ &= \dfrac{1}{2}m_1 v_1^2 + \dfrac{1}{2}\dfrac{m_1^2 v_1^2}{m_2} - \dfrac{G \mu M}{r} \\ &= \dfrac{1}{2}\dfrac{m_2 + m_1}{m_2} m_1 v_1^2 - \dfrac{G \mu M}{r} \\ &= \dfrac{1}{2}\dfrac{M}{m_2} m_1 \left(\dfrac{m_2}{M} v\right)^2 - \dfrac{G \mu M}{r} \\ &= \dfrac{1}{2}\dfrac{m_1 m_2}{M} v^2 - \dfrac{G \mu M}{r} \\ &= \dfrac{1}{2}\mu v^2 - \dfrac{G \mu M}{r} \end{align*} \] (c)
由上题结果得: \[ v^2 = \dfrac{2E}{\mu} + \dfrac{2GM}{r} = 2GM\left(\dfrac{1}{r} + \dfrac{E}{\mu GM}\right) \] 令$$r_0 = -\dfrac{\mu GM}{E}$$,可得: \[ v^2 = 2GM\left(\dfrac{1}{r} - \dfrac{1}{r_0}\right) \] (d)
首先: \[ \begin{align*} \dfrac{vt}{r} &= \dfrac{v \cdot \sqrt{\dfrac{r_0^3}{8GM}} (\theta - \sin\theta)}{\dfrac{r_0}{2}(1-\cos\theta)} \\ &= \dfrac{v (\theta - \sin\theta)}{(1-\cos\theta)} \cdot \dfrac{2}{r_0} \sqrt{\dfrac{r_0^3}{8GM}} \\ &= \dfrac{v (\theta - \sin\theta)}{(1-\cos\theta)} \cdot \sqrt{\dfrac{r_0}{2GM}} \\ \end{align*} \] 另一方面,注意重要三角变换$$\dfrac{1-\cos\theta}{2} = \sin^2\dfrac{\theta}{2}$$,有: \[ r = r_0 \left(\dfrac{1-\cos\theta}{2}\right) = r_0 \sin^2\dfrac{\theta}{2} \] 而由(c)问得$$v$$的解为: \[ v = \sqrt{2GM\left(\dfrac{1}{r} - \dfrac{1}{r_0}\right)} \] 于是有: \[ \begin{align*} v &= \sqrt{2GM\left(\dfrac{1}{r_0 \sin^2\dfrac{\theta}{2}} - \dfrac{1}{r_0}\right)} \\ &= \sqrt{\dfrac{2GM}{r_0}} \sqrt{\dfrac{1}{\sin^2\dfrac{\theta}{2}} - 1} \\ &= \sqrt{\dfrac{2GM}{r_0}} \sqrt{\dfrac{1 - \sin^2\dfrac{\theta}{2}}{\sin^2\dfrac{\theta}{2}}} \\ &= \sqrt{\dfrac{2GM}{r_0}} \sqrt{\dfrac{\cos^2\dfrac{\theta}{2}}{\sin^2\dfrac{\theta}{2}}} \\ &= \sqrt{\dfrac{2GM}{r_0}} \cdot \dfrac{\cos\dfrac{\theta}{2}}{\sin\dfrac{\theta}{2}} \end{align*} \] 先化简到这一步,接着对三角函数部分做如下变换: \[ \dfrac{\cos\dfrac{\theta}{2}}{\sin\dfrac{\theta}{2}} = \dfrac{2\cos\dfrac{\theta}{2}\sin\dfrac{\theta}{2}}{2\sin^2\dfrac{\theta}{2}} = \dfrac{\sin\theta}{1 - \cos\theta} \] 则有: \[ v = \sqrt{\dfrac{2GM}{r_0}} \cdot \dfrac{\sin\theta}{1 - \cos\theta} \] 最后得: \[ \begin{align*} \dfrac{vt}{r} &= \dfrac{v (\theta - \sin\theta)}{(1-\cos\theta)} \cdot \sqrt{\dfrac{r_0}{2GM}} \\ &= \sqrt{\dfrac{2GM}{r_0}} \cdot \dfrac{\sin\theta}{1 - \cos\theta} \cdot \dfrac{(\theta - \sin\theta)}{(1-\cos\theta)} \cdot \sqrt{\dfrac{r_0}{2GM}} \\ &= \dfrac{\sin\theta (\theta - \sin\theta)}{(1-\cos\theta)^2} \ \end{align*} \] (e)
代入数据可以计算得: \[ \dfrac{vt}{r} = \dfrac{-118\,\mathrm{km/s} \times 13.7\,\mathrm{Gyr}}{710\,\mathrm{kpc}} = -2.3286 \] 则解数值方程: \[ \dfrac{\sin\theta (\theta - \sin\theta)}{(1-\cos\theta)^2} = -2.3286 \] 解得: \[ \theta = 4.2777\,\mathrm{rad} = 245.1^\circ \] (f)
由于: \[ r(\theta) = r_0 \left(\dfrac{1-\cos\theta}{2}\right) \] 在$$\cos\theta = -1$$,即$$\theta = \pi$$时达到最大值$$r_{\max} = r_0$$,因此我们要求$$r_0$$的值。由(e)问得$$\theta = 4.2777\,\mathrm{rad}$$,代入$$r(\theta)$$的表达式: \[ r = r_0 \left(\dfrac{1 - \cos(4.2777)}{2}\right) = 999.23\,\mathrm{kpc} \] 又因为$$\theta = 4.2777\,\mathrm{rad}$$时: \[ t(\theta) = \sqrt{\dfrac{r_0^3}{8GM}} (\theta - \sin\theta) = 13.7\,\mathrm{Gyr} \] 可得:(注意计算$$\theta - \sin\theta$$需要用弧度制,算出来是$$5.185$$) \[ M = \dfrac{r_0^3}{8G} \left(\dfrac{\theta - \sin\theta}{t(\theta)}\right)^2 = 3.97 \times 10^{12} M_\odot \] 这一步也可以代入下式得到: \[ M = \dfrac{v^2}{2G} \left(\dfrac{1}{r} - \dfrac{1}{r_0}\right)^{-1} = 3.97 \times 10^{12} M_\odot \]
评论
Firestar: 这题要是对三角函数变换再熟悉一点的话应该能做得更快,这里仅提供一种(也就是我在考场上写的那种)变换思路